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ProblemSet10 solutions v1

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Econ 136: Financial Economics Problem Set #10 Due Date: April 30, 2014 1. In the spreadsheet Markowitz-01.xlsx some of the entries in the long/short and longonly portfolio data sections are missing (the missing data locations are highlighted in yellow). Use the Solver to calculate the following to replace this data: (a) The mean excess return, standard deviation, and portfolio weights for the minimum variance portfolio. (b) The mean excess return, standard deviation, and portfolio weights for the optimum (maximum Sharpe ratio) portfolio. (c) The mean excess return, standard deviation, and portfolio weights for the portfolio with an expected excess return of 0.073. Note: Your results will differ slightly from those in the book because their …show more content…

Since this asset is the market it has a β of 1.0. With this: The value according to the Gordon growth model is D0 (1 + g) V0 = . (20) (E(rIndex ) − g) We are given the growth rate, but need to calculate the dividend amount and the cost of capital. The problem gives us the dividend as a dividend yield. To convert this into a dividend amount: D0 = (dividend yield) × (value of the index) = 0.0615 × $865 = $53.20 . (21) For the cost of equity we use the CAPM: E(rIndex ) = rf + β [E(rm ) − rf ] = 1.6% + 1.0 × 4.83% = 6.43% , (22) market risk premium and the value of the index follows as $53.20 (1.0335) D0 (1 + g) = = $1785.14 . V0 = (E(rIndex ) − g) (0.0643 − 0.0335) (23) 5. EverGrow corporation has a beta of 1.10 just paid a dividend of $1.35. The risk-free rate is 1.50% and the expected market return is 7.50%. Your growth analysts have concluded that the growth rate earnings per share and dividends will be 7% per year for the next three years and 3% per year thereafter. Calculate the value of EverGrow using the 2-stage dividend discount model. The 2-stage dividend discount model for this problem can be written 3 V0 = t=1 Dt V3 . t + (1 + r) (1 + r)3 (24) 3 Since we are not given the cost of equity capital r, but are given the needed data for a CAPM calculation, we proceed using the CAPM: r = rf + β [E(rm ) − rf ] = 1.50% + 1.1 (7.50% − 1.50%) = 8.1% . (25) The estimated future dividends are D1 = $1.35 ×

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