I asked the question below earlier today, and got a response, but I didn't understand it. I'm sure the response was well written and clear, but I have a very limited background in this area and probably need more of a layman's terms explanation! Thanks. Suppose that C is the price of a European call option to purchase a security whose present price is S. Show that if C>S then there is an opportunity for arbitrage (ie. riskless profit). Assume the interest rate r=0 so present value calculations are unnecessary.

I asked the question below earlier today, and got a response, but I didn't understand it. I'm sure the response was well written and clear, but I have a very limited background in this area and probably need more of a layman's terms explanation! Thanks. Suppose that C is the price of a European call option to purchase a security whose present price is S. Show that if C>S then there is an opportunity for arbitrage (ie. riskless profit). Assume the interest rate r=0 so present value calculations are unnecessary.

International Financial Management

14th Edition

ISBN:9780357130698

Author:Madura

Publisher:Madura

ChapterP1: Part 1: Integrative Problem: The International Financial Environment

Section: Chapter Questions

Problem 5Q

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I have been working on the question below and I'm stuck on how to finish it up. I have provided what I've done so far. Is what I've done so far correct? And how do I finish up the problem? Here is the question: Suppose that C is the price of a European call option to purchase a security whose present price is S. Show that if C>S then there is an opportunity for arbitrage (i.e. risk-less profit). You may assume the interest rate is r=0 so that the present value calculations are unnecessary. My work so far: There is an opportunity for arbitrage if we can create a portfolio that initially (time t=0) generates a zero net cash flow or a cash inflow, but still produce a positive or zero cash inflow at the time of expiration. Assume we are going to short sell one call option C, and buy one stock S. Consider the cash flows at time t=0.Cash flow of selling one call option: +CCash flow of buying one stock: -STherefore, since C>S, we have an initial cash inflow of C-S>0. We will now…
Suppose that C is the price of a European call option to purchase a security whose present price is S.Show that if C > S then there is an opportunity for arbitrage (i.e. riskless profit). You may assume theinterest rate is r = 0 so that present value calculations are unnecessary.
Suppose that C is the price of a European call option to purchase a security whose present price is S. Show that if C>S then there is an opportunity for arbitrage (i.e. risk-less profit). You may assume the interest rate is r=0 so that the present value calculations are unnecessary.
Suppose that C is the price of a European call option to purchase a security whose present price is S. Show that if C>S then there is an opportunity for arbitrage (ie. riskless profit). Assume the interest rate r=0 so present value calculations are unnecessary.
Let C be the price of a call option to purchase a security whose present price is S. Explain why C is less than or equal to S. I'm just thinking it wouldn't make financial sense to pay more for the call option than the present price of the security. I'm not sure if there is more of an explanation that is needed. I was also wondering is there any time when it would be favorable to pay more for the call option than the present price of the security?
Suppose that the relevant equilibrium model is the CAPM with unlimited borrowing and lending at a riskless rate of interest. Assuming, you discovered a security that was located below the security market line. What would you conclude about the pricing of this particular security? Describe any changes you would expect to occur in its price.
Select all of the following statements that accurately compare or contrast forwards and options: Group of answer choices Taking naked long positions in either a call or forward will lead to an overall long position in the underlying security. Options and forwards always have identical payoffs if the spot price remains the same. Both options and forwards can be used to reduce exposure to foreign exchange risk. Going long a naked put option and going short a naked forward both cause unlimited liability. Both options and forwards require the payment of a premium at the initiation of the contract. Forward contracts impose obligations on both parties in the transaction. Options contracts only impose an obligation on one party.
This is an open ended question and you need to do some research to get the answers: Is arbitrage good or bad? Justify. What are some problems with the Black-Scholes-Merton model? Suggest some improvements of the Black-Scholes-Merton model. In the class, we have derived the Black-Scholes-Merton formula for European options. Is is possible to derive something similar for American options?
Which of the following statements is (are) FALSE? Select one or more alternatives: Studies suggest that forward exchange rates are unbiased predictors for future spot exchange rates in internationally integrated capital markets. If arbitrageurs have sufficient capital to trade on risk-free opportunities instantaneously, we will see persistent deviations from covered interest parity. If both uncovered interest parity hypothesis and covered interest parity hypothesis hold, we can predict what the spot exchange rate will be in one year from today based on today's one-year forward exchange rate. If forward exchange rates deviate from synthetic forward rates defined by covered interest rate parity, there will be risk-free arbitrage opportunities in efficient capital markets.
To hedge payables, the firm will purchase a currency call option on the payable foreign currency. The firm can use the call option to buy foreign currency at a specified price. Why should the company, in this case, purchase a call option than a Forward contract? Maybe to make it easy on me, you can illustrate the answer by highlighting the situations suitable for options and Forward contracts. For example, "when this situation occurs....., then that hedging we should use .... because of XYZ reasons/effects on profitability".
a) If you must buy some asset in future and you just want to hedge the risk what sort of derivative trading will you do? Explain in brief with payoff diagram. b) If you have long position in one asset and you want to hedge the risk of price drop in that asset while still having the upside in case the asset price goes up, what sort of derivative trading will you do? Explain in brief with payoff diagram. c) Briefly explain the benefits of having a thriving capital markets even in an economy like India where banking system provides most of the funding to firms. d) What are the four types of traders? Name two types who facilitate the price discovery process and briefly state how do they facilitate?
Let rf be the risk free rate of interest. E[r e ] be the expected return of some risky asset. Suppose that this risky asset pays out in states when the aggregate endowment is particularly low. There are three possibilities: ( a) E[r e ] > rf (b) E[r e ] = rf (c) E[r e ] < rf Which case applies to E[r e ] and why?